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Otp For A Divorced Couple House

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but right now, only the seller (husband) had signed the OTP..

I think the wife denied to sign as she refused to sell the house.

I have checked that the 500 had been deducted from my bank account as I believed the husband had done so.

my agent said, the court order had a statement that the wife had to sell the apartment no matter how. If she refused to sign, the judge will sign on her behalf.

is there such thing?...

Checked with my colleague, by right, I should not have handed over the cheque as the other party had not 100% sign on the OTP form.

Please advice. This is my first time buying.. :unsure:

 

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I got to agree with yr col. pay only when both signatures are on OTP.

It can be very complicated if the ex-wife refused to sign. Even if eventually she signed it will take quite a long time. Can u wait?

Better verify the claimed made by your agent on the jugde will signed on behalf. How? When?

but right now, only the seller (husband) had signed the OTP..

I think the wife denied to sign as she refused to sell the house.

I have checked that the 500 had been deducted from my bank account as I believed the husband had done so.

my agent said, the court order had a statement that the wife had to sell the apartment no matter how. If she refused to sign, the judge will sign on her behalf.

is there such thing?...

Checked with my colleague, by right, I should not have handed over the cheque as the other party had not 100% sign on the OTP form.

Please advice. This is my first time buying.. :unsure:

Edited by chronograph
 

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I got to agree with yr col. pay only when both signatures are on OTP.

It can be very complicated if the ex-wife refused to sign. Even if eventually she signed it will take quite a long time. Can u wait?

Better verify the claimed made by your agent on the jugde will signed on behalf. How? When?

they told me what 7 days from the day after OTP expire?..

something like that... :jawdrop:

 

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they told me what 7 days from the day after OTP expire?..

something like that... :jawdrop:

normally for such cases, the court order will state that one party will be the decision maker. As long as the court order is valid, the decision maker can make the decision to sell the flat without the other owner's signature. However, you may want to take note that such cases will normally drag...completion will be slower than normal process.

hope this helps!

 

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normally for such cases, the court order will state that one party will be the decision maker. As long as the court order is valid, the decision maker can make the decision to sell the flat without the other owner's signature. However, you may want to take note that such cases will normally drag...completion will be slower than normal process.

hope this helps!

I dont mind the drag, as long can get the hdb.. :D

 

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normally for such cases, the court order will state that one party will be the decision maker. As long as the court order is valid, the decision maker can make the decision to sell the flat without the other owner's signature. However, you may want to take note that such cases will normally drag...completion will be slower than normal process.

hope this helps!

For Malay Custom, Is it true that the male take charge of the decision?

 

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but right now, only the seller (husband) had signed the OTP..

I think the wife denied to sign as she refused to sell the house.

I have checked that the 500 had been deducted from my bank account as I believed the husband had done so.

my agent said, the court order had a statement that the wife had to sell the apartment no matter how. If she refused to sign, the judge will sign on her behalf.

is there such thing?...

Checked with my colleague, by right, I should not have handed over the cheque as the other party had not 100% sign on the OTP form.

Please advice. This is my first time buying.. :unsure:

Hi

We recently bought a flat from a couple who were divorced. The husband was staying in the house but not the wife. The seller's agent actually got the wife to sign on the blank OTP with a stated selling price and showed it to us together with the husband. i.e. the sale price had been agreed btw the husband and wife already. The OTP just needs husband's signature but we cannot negotiate price. It was reasonable anyway so we went ahead with the purchase and signed it on the spot. In our case, the flat was jointly owned by both the husband and wife so it needed 2 signatures to proceed.

How much do you trust your agent? Can the judge really sign on the wife's behalf? Perhaps you could ask the agent to show you the court order? Otherwise it looks like it's going to be a $500 learning experience.....

Normally in the case of a divorce, the proceeds of the house would be divided between the husband and wife depending on how much each one contributed to the financing of it.

I know of someone (the husband) whose wife had no say in the sale price or financial proceeds from the flat because the husband was the one who financed the flat all the way. The judge passed the order that the husband had the final say over the flat. If that is the case for yours, then it'll be more straighforward lah.

Edited by blue_skies
 

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Hi

We recently bought a flat from a couple who were divorced. The husband was staying in the house but not the wife. The seller's agent actually got the wife to sign on the blank OTP with a stated selling price and showed it to us together with the husband. i.e. the sale price had been agreed btw the husband and wife already. The OTP just needs husband's signature but we cannot negotiate price. It was reasonable anyway so we went ahead with the purchase and signed it on the spot. In our case, the flat was jointly owned by both the husband and wife so it needed 2 signatures to proceed.

How much do you trust your agent? Can the judge really sign on the wife's behalf? Perhaps you could ask the agent to show you the court order? Otherwise it looks like it's going to be a $500 learning experience.....

Normally in the case of a divorce, the proceeds of the house would be divided between the husband and wife depending on how much each one contributed to the financing of it.

I know of someone (the husband) whose wife had no say in the sale price or financial proceeds from the flat because the husband was the one who financed the flat all the way. The judge passed the order that the husband had the final say over the flat. If that is the case for yours, then it'll be more straighforward lah.

That agent was my reservist pal. i saw the court order, with only the husband signature.

Yeah, i understand that will be the ideal case.

For myself, i knew the seller is a married couple. but the children inside the house does not belong to the seller, it belongs to the wife's ex hubby children.

 

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